USMLE® Step 1 & 2

USMLE Step 2 prep: Woman with amenorrhea, breast discharge

| 3 Min Read

If you’re preparing for the United States Medical Licensing Examination® (USMLE®) Step 2 exam, you might want to know which questions are most often missed by test-prep takers. Check out this example from Kaplan Medical, and read an expert explanation of the answer. Also check out all posts in this series.

Get residency-ready with AMA benefits

  • Find your perfect match using full features of FREIDA™, the AMA Residency & Fellowship Database®
  • Distinguish yourself with AMA leadership opportunities

Supporting you today as a medical student. Protecting your future as a physician.

This month’s stumper

A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a one-year history of amenorrhea. She has had occasional discharge from both breasts. She takes no medications. She has a 5-year-old child that she breast-fed until age 9 months. There is diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland. Breast examination shows expression of milk from both breasts. MRI of the brain shows pituitary enlargement. Laboratory studies show:

Medical information in table format

Urine beta-human chorionic gonadotropin negative.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Bromocriptine.

B. Cabergoline.

C. Radiotherapy.

D. Thyroxine replacement.

E. Transsphenoidal surgery.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The correct answer is D.

Kaplan Medical explains why

The patient has hyperprolactinemia, amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and hypothyroidism. MRI scan of the pituitary shows diffuse enlargement. The correct diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is one of the functional causes of hyperprolactinemic states.

Hyperprolactinemia occurs in approximately 25% of patients with primary hypothyroidism. There will be thyrotrope-cell hypertrophy and hyperplasia and an increased level of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) because of the lack of negative feedback by thyroid hormones. TRH causes a diffuse pituitary enlargement with increased synthesis and secretion of prolactin. Thyroid hormone replacement will restore normoprolactinoma and will cause regression of the pituitary enlargement.

Why the other answers are wrong

Choice A and B: Bromocriptine or cabergoline are both dopamine agonists used for medical treatment of prolactinoma. These medications may control the hyperprolactinemia but will not affect the primary problem, which is the primary hypothyroidism.

Choice C and E: Radiation therapy and transsphenoidal surgery are second-line treatments of hyperprolactinemia, but not hypothyroidism.

Tips to remember

  • Primary hypothyroidism can present with hyperprolactinemia.
  • Increased TRH stimulates the pituitary gland, causing prolactin secretion.
  • Primary hypothyroidism and secondary hyperprolactinemia: Thyroid replacement therapy will correct both.

For more prep questions on USMLE Steps 1, 2 and 3, view other posts in this series.

The AMA and Kaplan have teamed up to support you in reaching your goal of passing the USMLE® or COMLEX-USA®. If you're looking for additional resources, Kaplan provides free access to tools for pre-clinical studies, including Kaplan’s Lecture Notes series, Integrated Vignettes, Shelf Prep and more. 

FEATURED STORIES

Woman handing an insurance card to a doctor who is reviewing paperwork

AMA report: Health insurance giants tighten grip on U.S. markets

Dec 16, 2025
Patients in a waiting room at a doctor's office

What to expect from the 2026 Medicare Physician Fee Schedule

| 7 Min Read
Row of blocks with businesspeople with one being taken away

4 “Big, Beautiful Bill” changes that will reshape care in 2026

| 6 Min Read
Wood poles with question mark symbols

PAs push to enshrine “physician associate” term in law

| 6 Min Read